What is the difference between rape and forcible rape? That’s a question Bart Stupak wants you to know the answer to before you go trying to abort a pregnancy that has resulted from rape. He also wants your insurance company to ask you and your doctor whether your rape was really, truly forcible. If it wasn’t, Stupak wants it to be illegal for your insurance company to pay for the procedure. This distinction is not in the Stupak-Pitts Amendment that recently passed in the House, but it was in a Pitts Amendment that passed the Energy & Commerce Committee last summer. Chairman Waxman managed to reintroduce it and kill it off.
However, all the Republicans voted for it, and so did Bart Stupak and a handful of other Democrats. So, I ask you, what is the difference between rape and forcible rape? Is this language an indelicate way of banning coverage of abortions for pregnancies resulting from ‘consensual’ statutory rape? Or, are we supposed to decide when a rape is non-forcible? If the woman is passed out and doesn’t struggle or verbally object, is that non-forcible rape? How would an insurance company go about making sure that your rape was forcible? Who’s word is good enough? Do you need photographs of lacerations or something?
Why do we have to put up with these morons?
